HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?
- A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
- B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
- C. Decreased white blood cell count.
- D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.
2. A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
- A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain
- C. Normal bowel sounds with cramping
- D. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.
4. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:
- A. Low
- B. High
- C. Inaccurate
- D. Unaffected
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.
5. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is
- A. prone.
- B. Fowler's.
- C. Sims'.
- D. supine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.
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