HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?
- A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
- B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
- C. Decreased white blood cell count.
- D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.
2. A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?
- A. I am available to talk if you should change your mind.
- B. It’s important to discuss your concerns with the provider.
- C. You need to make a decision about your treatment options.
- D. Your concerns will be addressed at a later time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.
3. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Saturated abdominal dressing
- C. Pain level of 8/10
- D. Temperature of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for using a walker. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch.
- B. I will avoid using the walker on uneven surfaces.
- C. I will use the walker on stairs for added support.
- D. I will not need to make any changes to my home environment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hiring someone to trim low-hanging branches over stairs ensures home safety and reflects an understanding of walker use. This action indicates the client's awareness of potential hazards and the importance of a safe environment for walker use. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding uneven surfaces is a general safety precaution but does not directly relate to walker use and does not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker on stairs is not recommended due to safety concerns such as balance and fall risks. Choice D is incorrect as making no changes to the home environment may pose safety risks when using a walker, showing a lack of understanding regarding safety precautions needed for walker use.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
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