a nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster which of the following findings suggests that the client has
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Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

2. A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.

3. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.

4. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.

5. A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.

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