a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta blocker which side effect should the lpnlvn monitor for in this client
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

2. When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.

3. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

5. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

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