Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

3. A client expresses pain during dressing changes postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage the client to relax and take deep breaths during the dressing change.
• B. Educate the client about the importance of pain management postoperatively.
• C. Assist the client to a comfortable position for the dressing change.
• D. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client's dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to address the client's immediate physiological need for comfort and pain relief during the dressing change. Administering pain medication 45 minutes before the procedure can help alleviate the pain experienced by the client. Encouraging relaxation techniques (choice A) is beneficial but may not provide sufficient pain relief during the dressing change. Educating about the importance of pain management (choice B) is relevant but does not address the immediate need for pain relief. Assisting the client to a comfortable position (choice C) is helpful but does not directly address the client's pain concern during the dressing change. Administering pain medication is the most direct and effective intervention to ensure optimal client comfort and compliance with necessary procedures.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Wheezing
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Cough with sputum production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

5. An assistive personnel says to the nurse, “This client is incontinent of stool three or four times a day. I get angry, and I think that the client is doing it just to get attention. I think we should put adult diapers on her.” Which is the appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should report this to the supervisor
• B. It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress
• C. Diapers are the best solution
• D. The client’s condition is not your concern

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is 'It is very upsetting to see an adult client regress.' In this situation, the nurse should acknowledge the emotional impact of caregiving on the assistive personnel and address it professionally. Choice A is incorrect because reporting to the supervisor may not directly address the emotional concerns raised. Choice C is incorrect because immediately resorting to diapers without further assessment or intervention is not the most appropriate solution. Choice D is incorrect as the client's well-being and care are a shared responsibility among healthcare team members.

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