HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.
2. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
- B. Check the client’s weight daily.
- C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.
3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client who has a new prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints
- B. Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed
- C. Secure the restraints to the bed frame
- D. Use a quick-release knot to tie the restraints
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a new prescription for wrist restraints is to pad the client’s wrists before applying the restraints. This is important to prevent skin breakdown and injury. Tying the restraints to the side rails of the bed (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to potential harm for the client. Similarly, securing the restraints to the bed frame (Choice C) is not appropriate as it can restrict the client's movement and cause discomfort. Using a quick-release knot to tie the restraints (Choice D) is also incorrect as it may compromise the effectiveness of the restraints in ensuring client safety.
4. When replacing a client's surgical dressing, what should the nurse do?
- A. Don sterile gloves to remove the old dressing
- B. Wash hands thoroughly before removing the old dressing
- C. Use sterile gloves to remove the old dressing
- D. Apply a new dressing before removing the old one
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When replacing a client's surgical dressing, the nurse should use sterile gloves to remove the old dressing. Sterile technique is essential to prevent introducing infection to the wound. Choice A is incorrect because clean gloves are not sufficient; sterile gloves are necessary to maintain asepsis. Choice B, washing hands, is an important step before and after the procedure to maintain hand hygiene, but sterile gloves are required during the dressing change. Choice D is incorrect because a new dressing should only be applied after the old one has been removed to prevent contamination and ensure proper wound care.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
- A. Limiting fluids
- B. Client-controlled analgesia
- C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
- D. Performing passive range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
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