Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

2. A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a large snack before bedtime.
• B. Allow the child to watch an extra 30 minutes of TV in the evening.
• C. Have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day.
• D. Increase physical activity before bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours
• B. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
• C. Use sterile technique to collect a specimen from the drainage system
• D. Secure the catheter to the lower abdomen with a securement device

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).

4. The healthcare provider is providing teaching to an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity about diet. Which diet will the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. High protein, high calorie
• B. High carbohydrate, low fat
• C. High vitamin A, high vitamin E
• D. Fluid restricted, bland

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: High protein, high calorie. An immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity requires a diet high in protein and calories to repair injured tissue and rebuild depleted protein stores. This helps in promoting wound healing and preventing further breakdown of the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while vitamins and minerals are essential for overall health, in this case, the priority is on providing sufficient protein and calories to support healing and recovery in an immobilized patient with impaired skin integrity.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

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