Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

2. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

3. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision site?

• A. Montgomery straps
• B. Sterile gauze
• C. Adhesive tape
• D. Elastic bandages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Montgomery straps are the correct choice in this scenario. They are specifically designed to secure dressings around drain sites, like Penrose drains, and are ideal for frequent dressing changes. Sterile gauze (Choice B) is commonly used for wound dressings but may not provide the best securement for drains. Adhesive tape (Choice C) can cause skin irritation and may not be suitable for securing drains. Elastic bandages (Choice D) are typically used for compression or support but are not appropriate for securing dressings around drain sites.

5. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.

Similar Questions