Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rate
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.

3. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?

• A. The client’s temperature
• B. The client’s menses are overdue
• C. The client’s crying
• D. The client’s soft abdomen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, which requires immediate attention. The presence of crepitus suggests air leaking into the tissues, which could lead to respiratory compromise. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing the system is intact. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube.

5. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

• A. 0.75 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 0.8 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

Similar Questions