HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?
- A. A patient who is afebrile
- B. A patient who is diaphoretic
- C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
- D. A patient with adequate skin turgor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.
2. A nurse in the emergency department observes large welts and scars on the back of a child who has been admitted for an asthma attack. What additional information must be included in the nurse’s assessment?
- A. History of an injury
- B. Signs of child abuse
- C. Presence of food allergies
- D. Recent recovery from chickenpox
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of child abuse. Large welts and scars on a child may be indicative of abuse, making it crucial for the nurse to assess and report any suspicions. Assessing the history of an injury (choice A) may not provide insight into the cause of the welts and scars as effectively as looking for signs of potential abuse. Food allergies (choice C) and recent recovery from chickenpox (choice D) are not directly relevant to the observation of welts and scars on the child's back.
3. A child is being assessed by a nurse for suspected nephrotic syndrome. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Edema
- C. Hypertension
- D. Polyuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to protein loss in the urine (proteinuria). The decrease in serum protein levels results in a reduced oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Jaundice (choice A) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions like nephritic syndrome. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a prominent feature of nephrotic syndrome.
4. Postoperative orders for a client undergoing a mitral valve replacement include monitoring pulmonary artery pressure together with pulmonary capillary wedge pressure with a pulmonary artery catheter. This action by the nurse will assess
- A. Right ventricular pressure
- B. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
- C. Acid-Base balance
- D. Coronary artery stability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is used to assess left ventricular end-diastolic pressure. This measurement provides valuable information on the filling pressure of the left ventricle. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring pulmonary capillary wedge pressure does not directly assess right ventricular pressure, acid-base balance, or coronary artery stability.
5. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?
- A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
- B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
- C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
- D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.