Nursing Elites

1. While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?

• A. Ask the student, 'What did you forget to do?'
• B. Stop and explain why aspiration is needed.
• C. Quietly state, 'You forgot to aspirate.'
• D. Walk up and whisper in the student's ear, 'Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.

2. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

3. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

• A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
• B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
• C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
• D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Dizziness
• D. Chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

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