Nursing Elites

1. While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?

• A. Ask the student, 'What did you forget to do?'
• B. Stop and explain why aspiration is needed.
• C. Quietly state, 'You forgot to aspirate.'
• D. Walk up and whisper in the student's ear, 'Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.

2. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

3. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Infuse hypotonic IV fluids.
• B. Implement a fluid restriction.
• C. Increase sodium intake.
• D. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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