the provider orders lanoxin digoxin 0125 mg po and furosemide 40 mg every day which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at
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HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

3. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

4. Which nursing diagnosis would be a priority for a client admitted with a CVA (cerebral vascular accident)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for aspiration' as it is a priority concern in clients with a CVA due to potential swallowing difficulties. Aspiration poses immediate risks such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening. Impaired physical mobility, while important, may not be as urgent as the risk for aspiration in this scenario. Disturbed sensory perception and interrupted family processes are not typically the most critical concerns in the acute phase of a CVA.

5. A client with a terminal illness is expected to pass away within 24 hours. The family asks the nurse about what to expect at this time. Which of the following findings should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: As death approaches, decreased muscle tone and other signs like decreased blood pressure, irregular breathing patterns, cold extremities, and decreased urine output are common. Warm extremities (choice B) would not be expected as circulation may be compromised. Increased urine output (choice C) is unlikely as organ function declines. A regular breathing pattern (choice A) is also unlikely as irregular breathing patterns are common near death.

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