HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
- A. Spaghetti
- B. Watermelon
- C. Chicken
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.
2. The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
- B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
- C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
- D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.
3. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?
- A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
- B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
- C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
- D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.
4. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
- A. Pericardial friction rub
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Aortic regurgitation
- D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.
5. A nurse educator is conducting a parenting class for new guardians of infants. Which of the following statements made by a participant indicated understanding?
- A. “I will set my water heater at 130°F.â€
- B. “Once my baby can sit up, they should be safe in the bathtub.â€
- C. “I will place my baby on their stomach to sleep.â€
- D. “Once my infant starts to push up, I will remove the mobile from over the crib.â€
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Removing the mobile when the baby starts to push up prevents choking hazards as infants can reach and grab objects posing a risk of choking. Choice A is unsafe as setting the water heater at 130°F can scald a child. Choice B is incorrect because even when a baby can sit up, they still require close supervision in the bathtub. Choice C is unsafe as current guidelines recommend placing babies on their backs to sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect or unsafe practices for infant care.
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