Nursing Elites

1. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?

• A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine
• B. Urine has a strong odor
• C. The client reports abdominal discomfort
• D. The catheter is blocked or not draining

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because if the catheter is blocked or not draining, it may need irrigation to restore proper flow. Option A, 'Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine,' does not necessarily indicate the need for irrigation as it could be within the expected range for catheter drainage. Option B, 'Urine has a strong odor,' may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not directly correlate with the need for catheter irrigation. Option C, 'The client reports abdominal discomfort,' could indicate various issues but does not specifically suggest the need for catheter irrigation.

2. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
• D. Decreased serum potassium levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.

3. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

4. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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