HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. When moving a patient up in bed using a drawsheet with the help of another nurse, in which order will the nurses perform the steps, starting with the first one?
- A. Grasp the drawsheet firmly near the patient.
- B. Move the patient and drawsheet to the desired position.
- C. Position one nurse at each side of the bed.
- D. Place the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When moving a patient up in bed with a drawsheet and the assistance of another nurse, it is important to have one nurse positioned at each side of the bed initially. This allows for proper coordination and support during the patient movement. Placing the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh, grasping the drawsheet firmly near the patient, and moving the patient and drawsheet to the desired position follow after the nurses are positioned on each side of the bed. The correct sequence ensures a safe and coordinated approach to repositioning the patient in bed.
2. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “The client’s age is not a factor in the measurement.”
- B. “The scale measures six elements.”
- C. “A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers.”
- D. “Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.
3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
4. A client is postoperative following knee arthroplasty and requires the use of a thigh-length sequential compression device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure two fingers can fit under the sleeves.
- B. Ensure the device is not too tight to impede circulation.
- C. Position the client comfortably before applying the device.
- D. Use the device continuously to prevent blood clots.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when applying a thigh-length sequential compression device to a postoperative client is to ensure that two fingers can fit under the sleeves. This action helps prevent the device from being too tight, which could impede circulation. Choice B is incorrect because the device should not be too tight, as it could lead to circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as the client should be in a comfortable position, not necessarily supine. Choice D is incorrect as sequential compression devices are typically used continuously to prevent blood clots.
5. Which nutritional assessment data should be collected to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent?
- A. Height in inches or centimeters.
- B. Weight in kilograms or pounds.
- C. Triceps skinfold thickness.
- D. Upper arm circumference.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper arm circumference.' Upper arm circumference is a better indicator of total muscle mass in adolescents compared to height, weight, or triceps skinfold thickness. Triceps skinfold thickness primarily reflects subcutaneous fat, while weight and height are not specific to muscle mass. Upper arm circumference directly measures the muscle mass in the upper arm and can provide a more accurate assessment in this context. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly reflect total muscle mass in adolescents.
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