an adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds after checking for responsiveness and calling for help the next action that should be ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is to ensure the client has a clear airway to facilitate breathing. After verifying unresponsiveness and calling for help, the nurse should open the client's airway to aid in maintaining ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse (Choice A) may be important but comes after ensuring a clear airway. Delivering abdominal thrusts (Choice B) is indicated for choking, not for an unresponsive client. Giving rescue breaths (Choice C) is also important but only after the airway has been established.

2. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

3. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soup is often high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet prescribed for hypertension. Fresh fruits (A) are generally low in sodium and are a healthy choice. Grilled chicken (B) is a lean protein option that is suitable for a low-sodium diet. Whole grain bread (C) is also a good choice as it is not typically high in sodium. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should recommend avoiding canned soup to adhere to the low-sodium dietary restrictions.

5. A nurse reviews an immobilized patient's laboratory results and discovers hypercalcemia. Which condition will the nurse monitor for most closely in this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Renal stones. Renal calculi are calcium stones that can form in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients, who have hypercalcemia, are at increased risk for developing renal stones. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of renal stones is crucial in this patient population. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although they are potential complications in immobilized patients, they are not directly associated with hypercalcemia and do not match the scenario described in the question.

Similar Questions

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The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

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