Nursing Elites

1. An adult client is found to be unresponsive on morning rounds. After checking for responsiveness and calling for help, the next action that should be taken by the nurse is to:

• A. Check the carotid pulse
• B. Deliver 5 abdominal thrusts
• C. Give 2 rescue breaths
• D. Open the client's airway

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is to ensure the client has a clear airway to facilitate breathing. After verifying unresponsiveness and calling for help, the nurse should open the client's airway to aid in maintaining ventilation. Checking the carotid pulse (Choice A) may be important but comes after ensuring a clear airway. Delivering abdominal thrusts (Choice B) is indicated for choking, not for an unresponsive client. Giving rescue breaths (Choice C) is also important but only after the airway has been established.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

3. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following assessment findings would be most concerning?

• A. Morning stiffness
• B. Joint deformities
• C. Fever
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with rheumatoid arthritis, the presence of fever is most concerning because it may indicate an infection or systemic involvement, necessitating immediate attention. Morning stiffness and joint deformities are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and are expected findings in these clients. Weight loss can occur in rheumatoid arthritis due to various factors such as decreased appetite or systemic inflammation, but it is not as acutely concerning as fever, which may signal a more urgent issue.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a surgical wound. Which of the following laboratory values places the client at risk for poor wound healing?

• A. Serum albumin 3 g/dL
• B. Total lymphocyte count 2400/mm3
• C. HCT 42%
• D. HGB 16 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin 3 g/dL. Low levels of serum albumin indicate poor nutritional status and can impair wound healing. Total lymphocyte count, HCT, and HGB levels are not directly related to wound healing and do not pose a significant risk for poor wound healing in this context. Total lymphocyte count reflects the immune status, HCT measures the percentage of red blood cells in blood, and HGB measures the amount of hemoglobin in blood.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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