Nursing Elites

1. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?

• A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
• B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
• C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
• D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.

2. When performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should be used?

• A. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter.
• B. Apply continuous suction during insertion of the catheter.
• C. Apply suction only during insertion of the catheter.
• D. Insert the catheter while the client is exhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps prevent damage to the mucosa and is the recommended approach. Continuous suction during insertion (choice B) can cause trauma to the airway lining. Applying suction only during insertion (choice C) is not sufficient for effective removal of secretions. Inserting the catheter while the client is exhaling (choice D) does not follow the standard procedure for nasotracheal suctioning.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who had a stroke. What task should be assigned to the assistive personnel?

• A. Assist the client with a partial bed bath
• B. Measure the client’s blood pressure after the nurse administers antihypertensive medications
• C. Use a communication board to ask what the client wants for lunch
• D. Feed the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the assistive personnel to assist the client with a partial bed bath. This task falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel and is a common activity in caring for clients who have had a stroke. Choice B involves measuring blood pressure, which should be done by a licensed nurse. Choice C requires the use of a communication board, which can be done by any healthcare team member, not just assistive personnel. Choice D involves feeding the client, which may require assessment and intervention by a licensed nurse to ensure proper nutrition and safety.

4. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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