Nursing Elites

1. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?

• A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
• B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
• C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
• D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.

2. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 0.5 tablet
• B. 1 tablet
• C. 1.5 tablets
• D. 2 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

4. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the nurse include as a developmental task for middle adulthood?

• A. The client evaluates their behavior after a social interaction.
• B. The client states they are learning to trust others.
• C. The client wishes to find meaningful friendships.
• D. The client expresses concerns about the next generations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in middle adulthood, individuals often shift their focus towards concerns related to the next generations. They reflect on their roles in guiding and supporting the younger generations. Choice A is incorrect as evaluating behavior after a social interaction is more relevant to self-awareness, which is not a specific developmental task for middle adulthood. Choice B, learning to trust others, is more commonly associated with early adulthood tasks related to forming intimate relationships. Choice C, wishing to find meaningful friendships, is more aligned with tasks associated with young adulthood and social connections.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?

• A. "Rashes are very common, especially if you have dry skin. Did it go away on its own?"
• B. "Virtually all medications have adverse effects. It sounds like this could have been an adverse effect of the antibiotic."
• C. "It's unlikely that your doctor will prescribe an antibiotic for what seems to be a minor viral infection, so we shouldn't be concerned about that rash."
• D. "We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it."

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.

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