HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?
- A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
- B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
- C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
- D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.
2. A client reports having insomnia. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for the nurse to recommend?
- A. Exercise 1 hour before bedtime.
- B. Eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
- C. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime.
- D. Take a 30-minute nap daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Eating a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime is a suitable intervention for insomnia because it can help stabilize blood sugar levels and promote sleep. Exercising close to bedtime may actually disrupt sleep patterns due to increased alertness and body temperature. Drinking hot cocoa before bedtime, which contains caffeine, may interfere with falling asleep. Taking a nap during the day can make it harder to fall asleep at night and may worsen insomnia. Therefore, the best recommendation among the choices provided is to eat a light carbohydrate snack before bedtime.
3. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?
- A. Abnormal breath sounds
- B. Cyanosis of the lips
- C. Increasing pulse rate
- D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.
4. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?
- A. Knee picture
- B. Ankle picture
- C. Elbow picture
- D. Wrist picture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.
5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
- C. Decrease in blood pressure
- D. Increase in respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.
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