HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?
- A. “My baby loved to play with the crib gym, but I took it out of the crib.”
- B. “I just bought a firm mattress so my baby will sleep better.”
- C. “My baby really likes sleeping on the fluffy pillow we just got.”
- D. “I put the baby’s car seat on the table after I put him in it.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.
2. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)
- A. “The temperature around the IV site is cooler.”
- B. “The rate of the infusion increases.”
- C. “The skin at the IV site is red.”
- D. “The IV dressing is damp.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
4. A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included:
- A. Cotton balls
- B. Sterile gloves
- C. A suction catheter
- D. Tracheostomy tubes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cotton balls. Cotton balls are not suitable for tracheostomy care due to the risk of lint and contamination. When performing tracheostomy care, sterile supplies such as sterile gloves, a suction catheter, and tracheostomy tubes are essential. Sterile gloves are needed to maintain asepsis, a suction catheter is necessary for airway clearance, and tracheostomy tubes are crucial for maintaining a patent airway. Cotton balls should be avoided to prevent introducing lint or fibers into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infection or airway obstruction.
5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access