Nursing Elites

1. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

2. During a patient assessment, which principle should be a priority?

• A. Foot care is always important.
• B. Daily bathing is always important.
• C. Hygiene needs are always important.
• D. Critical thinking is always important.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a patient assessment, critical thinking is a priority because a patient's condition can change rapidly, necessitating continuous critical thinking and adaptation of nursing interventions. While foot care, daily bathing, and hygiene needs are important components of patient care, they may not always take precedence over critical thinking, which guides the nurse in making timely and appropriate decisions based on the patient's current condition and needs. Therefore, critical thinking stands out as the most crucial principle during patient assessments.

3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

5. Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?

• A. Oil Retention
• B. Saline
• C. Soapy Water
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.

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