Nursing Elites

1. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?

• A. “I will place the client on their side.”
• B. “I will go to the nurses’ station for assistance.”
• C. “I will note the time that the seizure begins.”
• D. “I will prepare to insert an airway.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses’ station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.

3. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

• A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
• B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
• D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

4. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare a sterile field. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse identify as contaminating the sterile field?

• A. The nurse opens the sterile field on a wet surface.
• B. The nurse turns away from the sterile field.
• C. The nurse uses a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field.
• D. The nurse touches the edge of the sterile drape with her hand.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Opening the sterile field on a wet surface contaminates it, rendering it unsafe for use. Moisture can carry microorganisms that can compromise the sterility of the field. Choice B is incorrect because turning away from the sterile field alone does not necessarily contaminate it unless the nurse touches non-sterile items. Choice C is incorrect because using a non-sterile glove to touch the sterile field directly introduces contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as touching the edge of the sterile drape with a hand may not necessarily contaminate the entire field, unlike opening it on a wet surface.

5. A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?

• A. Examine the mouth first
• B. Reassure the child
• C. Examine the mouth last
• D. Offer a pacifier

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.

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