Nursing Elites

1. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

2. The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.
• B. Instruct the patient to blow their nose forcefully to clear the passage.
• C. Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.
• D. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.

3. The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?

• A. Using waxed floss helps prevent bleeding
• B. Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth
• C. Flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial
• D. Applying toothpaste before flossing is harmful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.

4. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
• B. The client picks up the walker with each step
• C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
• D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

• A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
• B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
• D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

Similar Questions