an adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30 tablet bottle of acetaminophen tylenol w
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HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

2. A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin, and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's risk of experiencing this side effect. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid direct sun exposure. Choice A indicates a need for health teaching as the client plans to return from vacation in 18 days, which is earlier than the scheduled dose of Prolixin at 20 days after discharge. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate knowledge. Choice B is important because alcohol can interact with Prolixin. Choice C is relevant as it mentions signs of agranulocytosis, a potential side effect of Prolixin. Choice D is correct as benztropine mesylate is used to prevent extrapyramidal symptoms associated with Prolixin.

3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

4. A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce six months ago, he lost his job three months ago, and his best friend moved to another city two weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment can be therapeutic in cases of depression and stress. It helps improve the client's sense of agency, which is essential for promoting feelings of empowerment and self-worth. Choice A could potentially be overwhelming for the client, especially considering his recent suicide attempt and ongoing stressors. Choice B might not be the most beneficial intervention as isolation could further exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness. Choice C, avoiding discussing upsetting subjects, may prevent the client from addressing and processing his emotions, hindering therapeutic progress.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

Similar Questions

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A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was Jesus Christ, but now he knows he is not. Which response is best for the nurse to make?
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