HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
2. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Stop the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.
3. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you
- B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings
- C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project
- D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Delusions often generate fear and isolation, so the nurse should help the client participate in activities that avoid focusing on the false belief and encourage interaction with others.
4. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
- B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
- C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
- D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.
5. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
- C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
- D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access