Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

2. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Allow the client to engage in any activities they choose.
• B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• D. Allow the client to take short naps during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder often experience excessive energy and impulsivity. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial to help manage these symptoms. This intervention promotes stability, reduces overstimulation, and supports the client in regaining control over their behaviors. Choices A and C may exacerbate impulsivity and overstimulation, while choice D does not address the need for environmental structure and may not be effective in managing manic symptoms.

3. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

4. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
• C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
• D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

5. A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Tremors
• C. Polyuria
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

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