Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• C. Restrict the client's access to the locks.
• D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can work towards understanding and managing their compulsions. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to continue the behavior does not address the root cause or help modify the behavior. Choice C is inappropriate as restricting access to locks can increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Choice D of scheduling specific times for checking locks does not address the underlying psychological issues driving the behavior.

2. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

• A. My mouth feels like cotton.
• B. That medication gives me indigestion.
• C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
• D. My urine looks pink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

4. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
• B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
• C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

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