Nursing Elites

1. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Communicate expected behaviors to the client
• B. Ensure that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit
• C. Assist the client in identifying ways of setting limits on personal behaviors
• D. Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a non-punitive manner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

2. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. "You can stand wherever you'd like as long as you stay safe from those in the parade."
• B. "You seem confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade."
• C. "Let's go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there."
• D. "Remember, this is a nursing home, and I am here to help you."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: (C) is the best response as it redirects the client to a safer, familiar place. (A) is dismissive and does not address the client's needs directly. (B) labels the behavior, which may increase the client's anxiety. (D) is scolding and may not be helpful in the situation.

3. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

4. A LPN/LVN is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client's bedside. Select the therapeutic techniques that the nurse would use when communicating with the family. Select one that does not apply.

• A. Discourage reminiscing
• B. Make decisions for the family
• C. Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears
• D. Explain everything that is happening to all family members

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the expression of feelings, concerns, and fears is a therapeutic technique that helps the family cope with the situation and express their emotions. This approach fosters trust and emotional release. Making decisions for the family is not appropriate because it takes away their autonomy and control during a difficult time. Discouraging reminiscing may hinder the family's coping mechanisms by discouraging them from sharing memories and finding comfort in the past. Explaining everything that is happening to all family members promotes transparency and understanding, which can help reduce anxiety and fear.

5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

Similar Questions