select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior select one that does not apply
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

2. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is started on a regimen of valproic acid (Depakote). Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to liver damage. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any early signs of liver impairment. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not the most important to monitor in this case. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) and serum sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by valproic acid and are not the priority for monitoring in a client taking this medication.

4. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

5. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

Similar Questions

A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?
An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?
An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses