Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Evaluate electrolytes
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.

3. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?

• A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
• B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
• C. I have been making plans for the future.
• D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.

4. The nurse is providing education about the importance of proper foot care to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which primary goal is the nurse trying to achieve?

• A. Prevention of plantar warts
• B. Prevention of foot fungus
• C. Prevention of neuropathy
• D. Prevention of amputation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevention of amputation. Patients with diabetes are at a higher risk of foot complications, such as ulcers, infections, and ultimately, amputations. Proper foot care education aims to prevent these serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are also important aspects of foot care, the primary goal in diabetes management is to prevent severe outcomes like amputation.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 200 mg
• B. 100 mg
• C. 160 mg
• D. 180 mg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg × 100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.

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