HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?
- A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
- B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
- C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
- D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.
2. During a routine monthly examination, a 5-month-old infant is brought to the pediatric clinic. What assessment finding should alert the nurse to notify the health care provider?
- A. Temperature of 99.5°F
- B. Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg
- C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute
- D. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute in a 5-month-old infant is considered high and may indicate respiratory distress. Infants normally have a higher respiratory rate than older children and adults, but a rate of 50 breaths per minute is above the expected range. This finding warrants immediate attention as it may be indicative of an underlying respiratory issue or distress. Choice A (Temperature of 99.5°F) is within the normal range for body temperature and does not necessarily indicate a critical issue. Choice B (Blood pressure of 75/48 mm Hg) is not typically assessed in isolation for a 5-month-old infant during a routine examination, and the values provided are not indicative of a critical condition. Choice C (Heart rate of 100 beats per minute) is within the normal range for heart rate in infants and may not be a cause for immediate concern during a routine examination.
3. What type of vaccine should a child with a history of severe allergic reactions receive?
- A. Live attenuated vaccines
- B. Inactivated vaccines
- C. Subunit vaccines
- D. Recombinant vaccines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Children with a history of severe allergic reactions should receive inactivated vaccines because they do not contain live pathogens. Live attenuated vaccines (choice A) contain weakened live pathogens and can potentially trigger an allergic reaction in sensitive individuals. Subunit vaccines (choice C) and recombinant vaccines (choice D) may contain components that could still trigger an allergic response in individuals with a history of severe allergies. Inactivated vaccines are the safest choice for individuals with a history of severe allergic reactions as they do not pose a risk of causing an allergic reaction due to the absence of live pathogens.
4. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?
- A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
- B. Long-term chemotherapy
- C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
- D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.
5. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?
- A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
- B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
- C. This test will detect fetal infection.
- D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.