Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

2. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

3. A caregiver is talking with the caregivers of a 10-year-old child who is concerned that their child is becoming secretive, including closing the door when showering and dressing. Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. “Perhaps you should try to find out what is happening behind those closed doors.”
• B. “Suggest that the door be left ajar for safety reasons.”
• C. “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.”
• D. “You should establish a disciplinary plan to stop this behavior.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.” During the developmental stage around 10 years old, children often start to value their privacy more and exhibit behaviors like closing doors when showering or dressing. It is a normal part of growing up and developing a sense of modesty. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests prying into the child's privacy, which may be counterproductive and invasive. Choice B is not the best response as it focuses on safety but fails to address the child's developmental stage and need for privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it advocates for discipline without recognizing the normal developmental behavior of children at this age.

4. Which task can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Take a history on a newly admitted client
• B. Adjust the rate of a gastric tube feeding
• C. Check the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client
• D. Check on a client receiving chemotherapy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Checking the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. This task is routine and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or critical decision-making. Options A, B, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of training and critical thinking beyond the scope of a UAP. Taking a history, adjusting tube feeding rates, and monitoring a client receiving chemotherapy are responsibilities that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers who have the necessary skills and training.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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