Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

2. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action:

• A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
• B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
• C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
• D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a client in seclusion without proper justification and documentation can lead to charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint, regardless of the client's compliance. This legal issue arises from the potential violation of the client's rights and must be avoided. Choice B is incorrect as the situation does not involve assault and battery. Choice C is incorrect as past violence alone does not justify seclusion without immediate risk. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should be used based on individual risk and necessity, not solely for maintaining the therapeutic milieu.

3. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
• B. Check the client's urine output
• C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
• D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

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