HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
3. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?
- A. Hemolytic
- B. Allergic
- C. Febrile
- D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.
4. The nurse is teaching an elderly client how to use MDIs (multi-dose inhalers). The nurse is concerned that the client is unable to coordinate the release of the medication with the inhalation phase. What is the nurse's best recommendation to improve the delivery of the medication?
- A. Nebulized treatments for home care
- B. Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister
- C. Asking a family member to assist the client with the MDI
- D. Requesting a visiting nurse to follow the client at home
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Adding a spacer device to the MDI canister is the best recommendation in this scenario. The spacer device helps to improve coordination and medication delivery by allowing the client more time to inhale the medication effectively. Nebulized treatments for home care (Choice A) involve a different delivery method and are not directly related to improving coordination with MDIs. Asking a family member to assist (Choice C) may not address the core issue of coordination between releasing the medication and inhalation. Requesting a visiting nurse (Choice D) may not be necessary if the client can improve coordination with the spacer device.
5. While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?
- A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart
- B. Measure the blood pressure
- C. Perform an ECG
- D. Recheck the heart rate after 5 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate nursing action when an irregularity in the heart rate is observed is to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute and describe the rhythm in the chart. This approach helps in obtaining an accurate assessment of the irregularities present. Measuring the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when an irregular heart rate is noted. Performing an ECG (Choice C) may be necessary but is a more advanced intervention that should follow the initial assessment. Rechecking the heart rate after 5 minutes (Choice D) may delay potential interventions for addressing the irregularity, making it less appropriate than the immediate assessment and documentation of the pulse rhythm.
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