Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

• A. Inject 5 units of air into the bottle of regular insulin
• B. Withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin from the bottle
• C. Inject 10 units of air into the bottle of NPH insulin
• D. Withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from the bottle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.

3. A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

• A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Normal bowel sounds
• D. High-pitched bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.

4. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

• A. Abnormal breath sounds
• B. Cyanosis of the lips
• C. Increasing pulse rate
• D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

Similar Questions