Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile and needs to be turned every 2 hours. The patient has poor lower extremity circulation, and the nurse is concerned about irritation of the patient's toes. Which device will the nurse use?

• A. Hand rolls
• B. A foot cradle
• C. A trapeze bar
• D. A trochanter roll

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A foot cradle is the correct choice for this situation. A foot cradle is used to reduce pressure on the tips of a patient's toes in individuals with poor lower extremity circulation. Hand rolls are not designed to address toe irritation specifically. A trapeze bar is used to assist patients with repositioning in bed, and a trochanter roll is used to support the hips and prevent external rotation of the legs, neither of which directly address toe irritation in this scenario.

3. During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?

• A. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water.
• B. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag with hot water every 24 hours.
• C. The client’s caregiver changes the feeding bag every 48 hours.
• D. The client’s caregiver adds water to the formula before administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.

4. What action should a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client take?

• A. Place the client’s arm in a dependent position.
• B. Place the client’s arm in a flexed position.
• C. Elevate the client’s arm to the level of the heart.
• D. Use a tourniquet above the insertion site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client is to place the client’s arm in a dependent position. This positioning helps with vein prominence and facilitates easier IV insertion by enhancing blood flow and distending the veins. Placing the arm in a flexed position or elevating it to the level of the heart can impede vein visualization and make insertion more challenging. Using a tourniquet above the insertion site is a step in the IV insertion process but is not the initial action to take when preparing for the procedure.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Evaluate electrolytes
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.

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