Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

4. A client with an NG tube is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
• B. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°
• C. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
• D. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°. Elevating the head of the bed prevents aspiration of the enteral formula, which is a priority in caring for a client with an NG tube. This action helps in reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While rinsing the feeding bag, ensuring the enteral formula temperature, and maintaining cleanliness are important aspects of enteral feeding care, the priority is to prevent aspiration by keeping the head of the bed elevated. These actions can be implemented after ensuring the client's safety by maintaining the correct bed position.

5. A healthcare professional is collecting a urine specimen for a client to test via urine dipstick to determine the urine's specific gravity. The healthcare professional knows the result will indicate the amount of:

• A. Solutes in the urine
• B. Bacteria in the urine
• C. pH level of the urine
• D. Glucose in the urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in the urine, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate or dilute urine. Choice B, bacteria in the urine, is incorrect because specific gravity does not measure bacterial presence. Choice C, pH level of the urine, is incorrect as it refers to the acidity or alkalinity of the urine, not its specific gravity. Choice D, glucose in the urine, is incorrect as specific gravity does not directly measure glucose levels in urine.

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