HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. A client with chronic back pain asks a nurse about receiving acupuncture for relief. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to receiving this treatment?
- A. Obesity
- B. Hypertension
- C. Migraines
- D. Cellulitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Cellulitis. Cellulitis is a contraindication for acupuncture due to the risk of infection. Acupuncture involves inserting needles into the skin, and if a person has cellulitis, which is a bacterial skin infection, there is a higher risk of introducing the infection deeper into the body. Obesity (choice A), hypertension (choice B), and migraines (choice C) are not contraindications for receiving acupuncture. These conditions do not pose a direct risk of complications related to acupuncture treatment.
3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
4. When assessing a client reporting increased pain after physical therapy, which question should the nurse ask to evaluate the quality of the pain?
- A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
- B. Does the pain radiate to other areas?
- C. Does the pain increase with movement?
- D. Can you rate your pain on a scale of 1 to 10?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing the quality of a client's pain is whether the pain is sharp or dull. This helps in understanding the characteristics of the pain being experienced. Choice B, asking if the pain radiates to other areas, focuses more on pain distribution rather than quality. Choice C, inquiring if the pain increases with movement, pertains to aggravating factors rather than pain quality. Choice D, requesting the client to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, is related to pain intensity rather than quality.
5. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?
- A. Trying to increase independence.
- B. Developing a sense of trust.
- C. Establishing a new identity.
- D. Attempting to master a skill.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.
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