Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?

• A. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
• B. Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream
• C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
• D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. While measuring a client’s oral temperature using an electronic thermometer, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client with oral hygiene before taking the temperature.
• B. Inquire whether the client has smoked in the last 30 minutes.
• C. Connect the red tip probe to the thermometer unit.
• D. Position the probe tip against the client’s buccal mucosa.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when measuring a client’s oral temperature using an electronic thermometer is to inquire whether the client has smoked in the last 30 minutes. Smoking can affect the accuracy of oral temperature readings. Providing oral hygiene (Choice A) is not directly related to ensuring accurate temperature measurement. Connecting the red tip probe (Choice C) is not specific to oral temperature measurement accuracy. Positioning the probe tip against the buccal mucosa (Choice D) is incorrect as oral temperature is typically measured under the tongue, not against the cheek.

5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

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