Nursing Elites

1. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?

• A. “I will place the client on their side.”
• B. “I will go to the nurses’ station for assistance.”
• C. “I will note the time that the seizure begins.”
• D. “I will prepare to insert an airway.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses’ station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.

3. A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?

• A. Assessment
• B. Situation
• C. Background
• D. Recommendation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

5. A client asks about the purpose of advance directives. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. They allow the court to overrule an adult client's refusal of medical treatment.
• B. They indicate the form of treatment a client is willing to accept in the event of a serious illness.
• C. They permit a client to withhold medical information from health care personnel.
• D. They allow health care personnel in the emergency department to stabilize a client's condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Advance directives specify the type of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or avoid in the event of a serious illness. Choice A is incorrect because advance directives do not allow the court to overrule a client's refusal of medical treatment; they empower the client to make their own healthcare decisions. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives do not permit a client to withhold medical information; they provide guidance on the client's treatment preferences. Choice D is incorrect because advance directives do not specifically address the actions of health care personnel in the emergency department; they focus on the client's treatment preferences in general.

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