Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

2. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
• C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
• D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

5. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.

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