nurse admitting new client medication reconciliation
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. During a client admission, how should the nurse conduct medication reconciliation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client’s home medications with the provider's prescriptions to ensure accuracy and prevent medication errors. Reviewing the client’s medical history (Choice B) is important but not the primary focus of medication reconciliation. Assessing the client's current medications (Choice C) is also vital but is not specific to the comparison between home and prescribed medications during reconciliation. Asking the client about their allergies (Choice D) is relevant for ensuring safe medication administration but is not the primary step in medication reconciliation, which involves comparing actual medications.

2. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.

3. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

4. A client returns from surgery with two Penrose drains in place. Anticipating frequent dressing changes, what should the nurse use around the incision site?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Montgomery straps are the correct choice in this scenario. They are specifically designed to secure dressings around drain sites, like Penrose drains, and are ideal for frequent dressing changes. Sterile gauze (Choice B) is commonly used for wound dressings but may not provide the best securement for drains. Adhesive tape (Choice C) can cause skin irritation and may not be suitable for securing drains. Elastic bandages (Choice D) are typically used for compression or support but are not appropriate for securing dressings around drain sites.

5. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

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