Nursing Elites

1. A nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme in light of the client’s advanced age and unstable status. The nurse understands that this action is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of 'do no harm.' In this scenario, questioning a potentially harmful prescription for a client with advanced age and unstable status aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence, as the nurse is advocating for the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly related to the situation described. Choice B, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not the focus of the nurse questioning the prescription. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation.

2. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

3. When assessing a patient's feet, the nurse notices that the toenails are thick and separated from the nail bed. What does the nurse most likely suspect is the cause of this condition?

• A. Fungi
• B. Friction
• C. Nail polish
• D. Nail polish remover

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would most likely suspect fungi as the cause of thickened and separated toenails. Fungal infections can lead to changes in the nail structure, causing them to thicken and separate from the nail bed. Friction, nail polish, and nail polish remover are less likely to cause these specific nail changes. Friction typically leads to calluses or blisters, while nail polish and nail polish remover do not commonly result in thickened and separated toenails.

4. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.

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