HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme in light of the client’s advanced age and unstable status. The nurse understands that this action is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Nonmaleficence
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of 'do no harm.' In this scenario, questioning a potentially harmful prescription for a client with advanced age and unstable status aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence, as the nurse is advocating for the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly related to the situation described. Choice B, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not the focus of the nurse questioning the prescription. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation.
2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Late decelerations
- C. Accelerations
- D. Moderate variability
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.
3. A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about the administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate no more than 6 L/min
- B. Administer oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation
- C. Use a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients
- D. Adjust oxygen flow based on client comfort
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Regulating oxygen flow at no more than 6 L/min via nasal cannula is a safe practice to prevent potential complications such as oxygen toxicity. Option B suggesting administering oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation is incorrect as it can lead to adverse effects. Option C is incorrect because using a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients is not necessary and should be based on individual client needs. Option D is incorrect as adjusting oxygen flow solely based on client comfort without considering the prescribed flow rate can compromise the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.
4. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?
- A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
- B. Loose, productive cough
- C. No relief from inhaler
- D. Fever and chills
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.
5. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?
- A. Push hard and deep on the chest
- B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
- C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
- D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.
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