HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A client is immobile due to a cast, and a nurse is assisting in the use of a fracture bedpan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the shallow end of the fracture pan under the client’s buttocks.
- B. Encourage the client to remain immobile on the fracture pan for 20 minutes.
- C. Keep the bed flat while the client is on the fracture pan.
- D. Hyperextend the client’s back while the fracture pan is in place.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when using a fracture bedpan for an immobile client is to place the shallow end of the pan under the client's buttocks. This positioning helps in proper collection of feces without causing discomfort or injury. Encouraging the client to try to defecate for 20 minutes (Choice B) is inappropriate and unrealistic, as defecation should not be forced or timed. Keeping the bed flat (Choice C) is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help promote proper positioning for bedpan use. Hyperextending the client's back (Choice D) is contraindicated and can lead to discomfort and potential injury to the client.
2. To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?
- A. Case manager - responsible for overseeing a case load of clients but does not provide direct client care
- B. Client educator
- C. Client advocate
- D. Supervisor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
4. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
- B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
- C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
- D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.
5. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.4
- B. Sodium 140
- C. Calcium 8.6
- D. Magnesium 2.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.
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