Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse notices the client's meal tray contains high-sodium foods. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the importance of a low-sodium diet
• B. Replace the meal with a low-sodium option
• C. Report the error to the dietary department
• D. Encourage the client to avoid eating the high-sodium foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to replace the high-sodium meal with a low-sodium option. This immediate intervention ensures that the client adheres to the prescribed low-sodium diet, crucial for managing heart failure and preventing fluid retention. Educating the client (Choice A) about the diet is important but not as urgent as ensuring they receive the correct meal. Reporting the error to the dietary department (Choice C) can be done after addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the client to avoid high-sodium foods (Choice D) is not as effective as replacing the current meal with a suitable alternative.

2. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
• B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.

3. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 400 mg/mL
• B. 500 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 350 mg/mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle.
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle.
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle.
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.

5. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

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