Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
• B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
• C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
• D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a total hip replacement. Which intervention is most important to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Encourage early ambulation
• B. Apply ice to the surgical site
• C. Monitor the surgical site for signs of infection
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging early ambulation is crucial following a total hip replacement surgery as it helps prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting circulation. Early ambulation also aids in preventing pneumonia, muscle atrophy, and pressure ulcers. Applying ice to the surgical site may help with pain and swelling, but it is not as critical in preventing complications as early ambulation. While monitoring the surgical site for signs of infection is important, it is not as crucial in preventing postoperative complications compared to early ambulation. Administering pain medication as prescribed is essential for comfort and pain management but does not directly prevent postoperative complications like early ambulation does.

3. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
• B. Show the client how to use the call light
• C. Use a gait belt to support the client
• D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Weight loss of 1 kg
• C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
• D. Presence of a bruit over the fistula

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated blood pressure in clients with chronic kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis can indicate fluid overload or poor dialysis efficacy and should be reported immediately. This finding could lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this situation. Decreased urine output may be expected due to the kidney disease, a weight loss of 1 kg is within an acceptable range, and the presence of a bruit over the fistula is a common finding in clients undergoing hemodialysis and does not require immediate reporting.

5. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

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