HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
- A. Filtration
- B. Diffusion
- C. Osmosis
- D. Active transport
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
2. A client complains of pain at the IV site. Upon assessment, the nurse notes the site is warm, red, and swollen. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
- A. Phlebitis
- B. Infiltration
- C. Allergic reaction
- D. Fluid overload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Phlebitis. Phlebitis is the inflammation of a vein, often caused by irritation from an IV catheter, resulting in warmth, redness, and swelling at the site. Infiltration (choice B) refers to the leaking of IV fluids into the surrounding tissues, causing swelling and pallor, not redness and warmth like in the scenario described. An allergic reaction (choice C) would present with itching, hives, or anaphylaxis, rather than localized warmth, redness, and swelling. Fluid overload (choice D) typically manifests as generalized edema, shortness of breath, and weight gain, not localized symptoms at the IV site.
3. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
4. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
- A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
- B. It can cause drowsiness
- C. It should be taken with meals
- D. Completing the full course is crucial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with or without food.
- B. Report any increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- D. Expect improvement within 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.
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