HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
- B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
- C. Prepare for emergency intubation
- D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.
2. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.
3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
4. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
5. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fiber intake.
- B. Avoid spicy foods.
- C. Avoid dairy products.
- D. Consume a high-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.
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