HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
- B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
- C. Prepare for emergency intubation
- D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.
2. A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?
- A. Starting an exercise program
- B. Keeping a sleep diary
- C. Practicing relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Using sleep-inducing medications at night
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.
3. The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of several drugs administered by different routes. Arrange the routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption. 1. Intravenous 2. Sublingual 3. Intramuscular 4. Subcutaneous
- A. 1,2,3,4
- B. 4,3,2,1
- C. 2,4,3,1
- D. 3,4,1,2
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption is 1. Intravenous, 2. Sublingual, 3. Intramuscular, 4. Subcutaneous. Intravenous administration provides the fastest absorption as the drug is directly injected into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Intramuscular administration has a slower absorption rate as the drug is injected into the muscle tissue. Subcutaneous administration is the slowest as the drug is injected into the fatty tissue under the skin, leading to a slower absorption compared to the other routes.
4. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.
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