Nursing Elites

1. A young adult male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a recent suicide attempt. His wife filed for divorce six months ago, he lost his job three months ago, and his best friend moved to another city two weeks ago. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to interact with individuals who are recovering from depression.
• B. Allow the client time alone to sort out his feelings.
• C. Avoid discussing topics that upset the client.
• D. Encourage activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging activities that allow the client to exert control over his environment can be therapeutic in cases of depression and stress. It helps improve the client's sense of agency, which is essential for promoting feelings of empowerment and self-worth. Choice A could potentially be overwhelming for the client, especially considering his recent suicide attempt and ongoing stressors. Choice B might not be the most beneficial intervention as isolation could further exacerbate feelings of loneliness and hopelessness. Choice C, avoiding discussing upsetting subjects, may prevent the client from addressing and processing his emotions, hindering therapeutic progress.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. A woman arrives in the Emergency Center and tells the nurse she thinks she has been raped. The client is sobbing and expresses disbelief that a rape could happen because the man is her best friend. After acknowledging the client's fear and anxiety, how should the nurse respond?

• A. I would be very upset and mad if my best friend did that to me.
• B. You must feel betrayed, but maybe you might have led him on?
• C. Rape is not limited to strangers and frequently occurs by someone who is known to the victim.
• D. This does not sound like rape. Did you change your mind about having sex after the fact?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A victim of date rape or acquaintance rape is less prone to recognize what is happening because the incident usually involves persons who know each other and the dynamics are different than rape by a stranger. Choice (C) provides confrontation for the client's denial because the victim frequently knows and trusts the perpetrator. Nurses should not express personal feelings (Choice A) when dealing with victims. Choice B, suggesting that the client led on the rapist, indicates that the sexual assault was somehow the victim's fault. Choice D is judgmental and does not display compassion or establish trust between the nurse and the client.

4. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

5. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
• B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
• C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
• D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

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