Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

2. A female client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that she believes her brain is controlled by the CIA. The nurse recognizes this as which type of delusion?

• A. Somatic delusion
• B. Paranoid delusion
• C. Persecutory delusion
• D. Grandiose delusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persecutory delusion. Persecutory delusions involve beliefs of being conspired against, watched, or harassed by others, which is a common symptom in schizophrenia. In this scenario, the client's belief that her brain is controlled by the CIA aligns with persecutory delusions as she feels targeted or manipulated by an external entity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Somatic delusions involve false beliefs about one's body functions or sensations, paranoid delusions involve irrational suspicions and mistrust of others, and grandiose delusions involve exaggerated beliefs of one's importance or abilities.

3. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

4. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?

• A. Provide detailed explanations during wound cleansing.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask the client non-threateningly why they cut their abdomen.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.

5. A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

• A. "When I return from my tropical island vacation, I will go to the clinic to get my Prolixin injection."
• B. "While I am on vacation and when I return, I will not consume any alcohol-containing food or beverages."
• C. "I will inform the healthcare provider if I develop a sore throat or flu-like symptoms."
• D. "I will maintain my daily intake of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin)."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin, and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's risk of experiencing this side effect. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid direct sun exposure. Choice A indicates a need for health teaching as the client plans to return from vacation in 18 days, which is earlier than the scheduled dose of Prolixin at 20 days after discharge. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate knowledge. Choice B is important because alcohol can interact with Prolixin. Choice C is relevant as it mentions signs of agranulocytosis, a potential side effect of Prolixin. Choice D is correct as benztropine mesylate is used to prevent extrapyramidal symptoms associated with Prolixin.

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