Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

2. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to take a shower.
• B. Assist the client with activities of daily living.
• C. Provide the client with clean clothes to change into.
• D. Explain the importance of personal hygiene to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client with activities of daily living. This intervention is the most appropriate as it directly addresses the client's immediate needs by providing assistance with personal hygiene and dressing. It promotes self-care and ensures the client's well-being. Encouraging the client to take a shower (Choice A) may not be effective if the client is unable to do so independently due to their condition. Providing clean clothes (Choice C) is important but does not address the client's need for assistance with personal care. Explaining the importance of personal hygiene (Choice D) may not be as effective as providing direct assistance in this situation.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

4. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
• B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
• C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.

5. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
• B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
• D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.

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