Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid addiction. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory depression.
• B. Administer methadone as prescribed.
• C. Provide a calm and quiet environment.
• D. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory depression. During opioid withdrawal, the priority is to monitor the client for respiratory depression as it can be life-threatening. Respiratory depression is a serious concern during opioid withdrawal, and prompt recognition and intervention are crucial. Administering methadone as prescribed (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but is not the priority in this situation. Providing a calm and quiet environment (Choice C) and encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (Choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring for respiratory depression.

2. A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is

• A. regressing to an earlier behavior pattern.
• B. sublimating her anger.
• C. projecting her feelings onto the nurse.
• D. suppressing her fear.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.

3. The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?

• A. Ensure that the client's day is filled with group activities.
• B. Assist the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt.
• C. Allow the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living.
• D. Encourage the client to explore the rationale for his depression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

5. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

Similar Questions