Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid addiction. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor for signs of respiratory depression.
• B. Administer methadone as prescribed.
• C. Provide a calm and quiet environment.
• D. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory depression. During opioid withdrawal, the priority is to monitor the client for respiratory depression as it can be life-threatening. Respiratory depression is a serious concern during opioid withdrawal, and prompt recognition and intervention are crucial. Administering methadone as prescribed (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but is not the priority in this situation. Providing a calm and quiet environment (Choice C) and encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (Choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring for respiratory depression.

2. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
• B. Transient mild anxiety
• C. Insomnia
• D. Torticollis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.

3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

4. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
• B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.

5. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

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