Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes a female client with schizophrenia watching the news on TV. She begins to laugh softly and says, 'Yes, my love, I'll do it.' When the nurse questions the client about her comment, she states, 'The news commentator is my lover, and he speaks to me each evening. Only I can understand what he says.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. What do you believe the news commentator said to you?
• B. Let's watch the news on a different television channel.
• C. Does the news commentator have plans to harm you or others?
• D. The news commentator is not talking to you.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to ask the client, 'What do you believe the news commentator said to you?' This is important to determine the content of the auditory hallucination and understand the client's perception. Choice B is incorrect as changing the TV channel does not address the underlying issue. Choice C is incorrect as it introduces a paranoid idea that the news commentator may have harmful intentions, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's belief without exploring or validating her experience.

2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

4. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Sublimation
• B. Suppression
• C. Regression
• D. Compensation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.

5. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

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