HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A practical nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client prescribed prednisone. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hypertension
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause side effects such as hypertension, fluid retention, and weight gain. Hypertension is a common side effect of prednisone due to its impact on sodium and fluid retention in the body. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to detect and manage hypertension in clients taking prednisone. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While prednisone can indirectly affect blood glucose levels, hypoglycemia is not a common side effect. Weight gain, not weight loss, is more prevalent with prednisone use. Diarrhea is not a typical side effect associated with prednisone.
2. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?
- A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
- B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
- C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
- D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.
3. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
- B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.
4. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?
- A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
- B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
- C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
- D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.
5. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What potential adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Persistent cough
- B. Constipation
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Dry skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. This cough is distinctive and different from other causes of cough. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential side effect as it can indicate a serious issue. Instructing the client to monitor for a persistent cough and report it to the healthcare provider promptly is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as constipation, increased appetite, and dry skin are not commonly associated with lisinopril use for hypertension. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on educating the client about monitoring and reporting a persistent cough.
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