Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. The practical nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place.
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain is relieved, up to three tablets.
• C. Swallow the tablets whole.
• D. Chew the tablets for faster relief.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are sensitive to heat and moisture, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place to maintain their efficacy. Storing them in a cool, dry place helps prevent degradation of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin tablets should be taken as directed by the healthcare provider to avoid potential overdose or adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue to dissolve and be absorbed, not swallowed, to ensure their quick action. Choice D is incorrect because sublingual tablets should not be chewed; they are meant to be absorbed through the tissues under the tongue, and chewing them may alter their effectiveness.

2. A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Complete the full course of the medication.
• D. Avoid dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to ensuring the effectiveness of the antibiotic. While taking medication with food or increasing fluid intake can be beneficial in general, the crucial instruction in this case is to complete the full course of the antibiotic.

3. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?

• A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
• B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
• C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
• D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.

4. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of infection
• B. Bone marrow suppression
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.

Similar Questions