a nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by the mouth to a client with hypertension heart rate is 48 beatsmin respirations 16 brea
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A healthcare professional prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min, respirations are 16 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's low heart rate of 48 beats/min indicates bradycardia, a potential side effect of labetalol. Administering the dose in this case could further lower the heart rate, potentially causing adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the scheduled dose and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and guidance. Choice A is incorrect because administering the dose without addressing the bradycardia can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is not relevant in this situation as telemetry monitoring is not the priority. Choice C is also not the priority in this case, as the focus should be on the client's bradycardia and the potential adverse effects of administering labetalol.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.

3. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.

5. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis who is prescribed oral metronidazole?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The practical nurse should instruct the client that their sexual partner(s) should also be treated when dealing with vaginal trichomoniasis. This is crucial to prevent reinfection as sexual intercourse is the route of spread for this infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure and using sunscreen is important for some medications, it is not specifically related to metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis. Avoiding vinegar or commercial douches is a general recommendation for vaginal health and not specific to this infection. Eliminating dairy products from the diet is not a typical instruction for clients prescribed metronidazole for vaginal trichomoniasis.

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