Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.

4. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?

• A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
• B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
• C. Thinned skin bruises easily
• D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed hydroxyzine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Hydroxyzine is known to cause drowsiness, so clients should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, nausea, and headache are not commonly associated with hydroxyzine use. It is crucial for the client to be aware of the potential drowsiness to ensure their safety and well-being while taking this medication.

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