Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage bradycardia promptly.

3. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperchloremia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypophosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

4. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the client that the effects of the medication have worn off
• B. Explain that the medication is not given to relieve pain
• C. Check for the correct placement of the patch on the client
• D. Offer to apply a new transdermal patch to address the pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

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