HESI LPN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions
1. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.
2. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
- B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
- C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
- D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.
3. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
- B. Call the healthcare provider.
- C. Encourage the client to void.
- D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.
4. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.
5. A client experiencing preterm labor is being taught about terbutaline by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. “The medication could cause me to experience heart palpitations.â€
- B. “This medication could cause me to experience blurred vision.â€
- C. “This medication could cause me to experience ringing in my ears.â€
- D. “This medication could cause me to experience frequent urination.â€
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to stop preterm labor. One of its common side effects is heart palpitations due to its action on beta receptors in the heart. Choices B and C are incorrect because blurred vision and ringing in the ears are not common side effects of terbutaline. Choice D is irrelevant to the side effects of terbutaline.
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