a perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding what is
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

2. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

3. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

4. What term is used to describe each member of a pair of genes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'allele.' An allele refers to one of two or more versions of a gene located at the same position on a chromosome. In genetics, alleles are responsible for variations in inherited traits. Choice B, 'zygote,' is incorrect as a zygote is a fertilized egg cell formed by the fusion of two gametes. Choice C, 'autosome,' is incorrect as autosomes are non-sex chromosomes that determine an individual's genetic traits excluding sex-linked characteristics. Choice D, 'node,' is incorrect as it does not relate to the concept of genes or genetic inheritance.

5. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.

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