HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?
- A. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.
2. Select the nursing theorist who is accurately paired with the theory or model of nursing that they are credited with.
- A. The Twelve Nursing Problems: Faye Glenn Abdullah
- B. The Nature of Nursing: Imogene King
- C. The Goal Attainment Theory: Virginia Henderson
- D. The Interpersonal Relations Model: Hildegard Peplau
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hildegard Peplau is credited with the Interpersonal Relations Model in nursing. Faye Glenn Abdullah is associated with the Developmental Theory of Nursing. Imogene King developed the Theory of Goal Attainment. Virginia Henderson is known for the Definition of Nursing. Therefore, among the given options, only Hildegard Peplau is correctly paired with the Interpersonal Relations Model.
3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
4. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?
- A. Administer the oral agents immediately after the test.
- B. Notify the diagnostic department and request orders.
- C. Notify the physician and request orders.
- D. Administer the oral agents with a sip of water before the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.
5. A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. No. When the lesions have disappeared, you may stop the nystatin.
- B. Yes. You should continue it for the full 7 days.
- C. No. Thrush is a self-limiting disorder, and nystatin is given for complete treatment.
- D. Yes. The medication should be refilled for a second week of therapy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nystatin should be given for the full 7 days even if the lesions are no longer present. Continuing the treatment for the prescribed duration ensures complete eradication of the fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication prematurely may lead to the reoccurrence of thrush. Choice C is inaccurate as nystatin is not just for comfort but for effective treatment. Choice D is incorrect as refilling the medication for a second week without medical advice may lead to unnecessary prolonged use and potential side effects.