Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
• B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
• C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
• D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• B. Take your medication with food to prevent nausea.
• C. Be sure to maintain a consistent sodium intake.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once your symptoms improve.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maintaining a consistent sodium intake is crucial for clients taking lithium because changes in sodium levels can impact lithium concentrations, potentially leading to toxicity. It is essential to avoid excessive sodium intake, as both low and high levels can affect lithium levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high potassium diet is not a concern with lithium therapy. While taking lithium with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, it is not the most important instruction. Finally, abruptly stopping lithium can lead to a recurrence of symptoms or a worsening of the condition, so it is vital to follow the prescribed regimen.

3. A male client with mental illness and substance dependency tells the mental health nurse that he has started using illegal drugs again and wants to seek treatment. Since he has a dual diagnosis, which person is best for the nurse to refer this client to first?

• A. The emergency room nurse.
• B. His case manager.
• C. The clinic healthcare provider.
• D. His support group sponsor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The case manager (B) is responsible for coordinating community services, making them the best person to refer the client to first as they can describe available treatment options. The emergency room nurse (A) is unnecessary unless the client's behaviors pose imminent threats. The clinic healthcare provider (C) and support group sponsor (D) may be useful but coordinating a treatment program tailored to the client's needs is the priority in this scenario.

4. A nurse determines that the wife of an alcoholic client is benefitting from attending an Al-Anon group when the nurse hears the wife say:

• A. I no longer feel that I deserve the meetings my husband inflicts on me.
• B. My attendance at the meetings has helped me to see that I provoke my husband's violence.
• C. I enjoy attending the meetings because they get me out of the house and away from my husband.
• D. I can tolerate my husband's destructive behaviors now that I know they are common with alcoholics.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as the statement indicates the wife understands that her husband's behavior is not her fault and is benefitting from the group support. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests self-blame rather than recognizing the husband's responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as the benefit is related to emotional support and understanding, not just getting away from the husband. Choice D is incorrect as tolerating destructive behaviors is not a healthy outcome of attending support groups.

5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

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