HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?
- A. Assist the client to a safe area to avoid injury.
- B. Establish clear and firm limits with the client.
- C. Offer medication to help calm the client down.
- D. Speak with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.
2. A female client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
- B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
- C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive-compulsive behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. Understanding the client’s motivations for keeping detailed records can provide insight into her obsessive-compulsive behaviors and help manage them effectively. This approach allows for a non-confrontational exploration of the behavior. Choice A is incorrect because it may be perceived as confrontational and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Choice C is incorrect because teaching strategies to control behavior should come after understanding the client's motives. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the behavior of keeping detailed records, which is the immediate concern that needs to be addressed.
3. A client with schizophrenia explains that she has 20 children and then very seriously points to the nurse and explains that she is one of them. What is the most therapeutic response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true.
- B. My name tag shows that I am a nurse here.
- C. I cannot possibly be one of your children.
- D. I know that you don’t have 20 children.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'My name tag shows that I am a nurse here,' is the most appropriate response as it provides clear and factual information to help the client differentiate between reality and delusion. By pointing out a concrete piece of evidence, the nurse can gently guide the client back to reality without directly challenging or contradicting their belief. Option A, 'Let’s go ask another nurse if this is true,' delays addressing the issue and doesn't provide immediate clarification. Option C, 'I cannot possibly be one of your children,' directly contradicts the client's statement and may increase distress. Option D, 'I know that you don’t have 20 children,' does not address the client's belief and can be perceived as dismissive.
4. A client with major depressive disorder is beginning a new antidepressant medication. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.â€
- B. “You should see immediate effects of the medication.â€
- C. “You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.â€
- D. “Avoid discussing your symptoms with your therapist.â€
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that “It may take several weeks to notice improvement.†This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing medications for a client with bipolar disorder and notices that the antipsychotic medication was discontinued several days ago. Which medication should also be discontinued?
- A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Benztropine (Cogentin)
- C. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia)
- D. Lithium (Lithotabs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an antipsychotic medication is discontinued, medications like Benztropine (Cogentin), which are given to reduce extrapyramidal side effects associated with traditional antipsychotic medications, should also be discontinued. Alprazolam (Xanax) is not directly related to antipsychotic medication use in this context. Magnesium (Milk of Magnesia) is a laxative and not typically indicated for bipolar disorder. Lithium (Lithotabs) is a mood stabilizer commonly used in bipolar disorder, and its discontinuation should be carefully managed under the guidance of a healthcare provider to prevent relapse of symptoms.
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