a female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while vigorously doing push-ups and then running the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to verbally attack other clients. What intervention is most appropriate for the RN to use to manage the client’s behavior?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to a safe area is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This action helps prevent injury to the client and others while allowing for de-escalation in a controlled environment. While establishing clear and firm limits (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations, the immediate priority here is safety. Offering medication (Choice C) should not be the first response unless the situation escalates further and poses a risk to the client or others. Speaking with the client in a calm, non-threatening manner (Choice D) may not be effective when the client is in an agitated state and engaging in risky behavior.

2. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

3. Narcan was administered to an adult client following a suicide attempt with an overdose of hydrocodone bitartrate (Vicodin). Within 15 minutes, the client is alert and oriented. In planning nursing care, which intervention has the highest priority at this time?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the client for further narcotic effects is the priority at this time. It is crucial to monitor the client closely to prevent a relapse of symptoms or potential complications from the overdose. Encouraging fluid intake is important for overall health but not the priority after an overdose. Obtaining serum Vicodin levels may be needed later but does not address the immediate need to monitor for ongoing effects. Determining the reason for the suicide attempt is vital for psychological assessment but should come after ensuring the client's physical stability.

4. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Resilience is the ability to adapt and cope with adverse situations. In this case, Christopher's positive outlook, love for school, and good academic performance despite experiencing neglect demonstrate resilience. Choice A, 'Temperament,' refers to an individual's natural behavioral style and would not fully explain Christopher's response. Genetic factors (Choice B) are not directly related to his ability to cope with neglect. Choice D, 'Paradoxical effects of neglect,' does not fit the situation as Christopher's positive response is more indicative of resilience than paradoxical effects.

5. A female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse observes a discrepancy between a client's verbal and nonverbal communication, it is essential to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages. Nonverbal cues, such as body language and facial expressions, can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state, feelings, and concerns that may not be expressed verbally. By documenting these nonverbal messages, the nurse can gain a more comprehensive understanding of the client's communication and address any potential underlying issues. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not always provide an accurate understanding of the client's nonverbal cues. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior (Choice C) could lead to missing important cues affecting the client's care. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is important, but initially focusing on documenting and understanding the nonverbal cues can enhance the nurse's assessment and communication with the client.

Similar Questions

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