HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?
- A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
- C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
- D. Provide emotional support to the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.
2. A woman arrives in the Emergency Center and tells the nurse she thinks she has been raped. The client is sobbing and expresses disbelief that a rape could happen because the man is her best friend. After acknowledging the client's fear and anxiety, how should the nurse respond?
- A. I would be very upset and mad if my best friend did that to me.
- B. You must feel betrayed, but maybe you might have led him on?
- C. Rape is not limited to strangers and frequently occurs by someone who is known to the victim.
- D. This does not sound like rape. Did you change your mind about having sex after the fact?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A victim of date rape or acquaintance rape is less prone to recognize what is happening because the incident usually involves persons who know each other and the dynamics are different than rape by a stranger. Choice (C) provides confrontation for the client's denial because the victim frequently knows and trusts the perpetrator. Nurses should not express personal feelings (Choice A) when dealing with victims. Choice B, suggesting that the client led on the rapist, indicates that the sexual assault was somehow the victim's fault. Choice D is judgmental and does not display compassion or establish trust between the nurse and the client.
3. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. "You can stand wherever you'd like as long as you stay safe from those in the parade."
- B. "You seem confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade."
- C. "Let's go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there."
- D. "Remember, this is a nursing home, and I am here to help you."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: (C) is the best response as it redirects the client to a safer, familiar place. (A) is dismissive and does not address the client's needs directly. (B) labels the behavior, which may increase the client's anxiety. (D) is scolding and may not be helpful in the situation.
4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
- D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.
5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
- B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
- C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
- D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.
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