HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
- B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
- D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.
2. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
3. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?
- A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
- B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
- D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.
4. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric ward of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his
- A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
- B. anger about being hospitalized.
- C. low self-esteem.
- D. phobic fear of food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: low self-esteem. Delusions of persecution, like being poisoned, are often rooted in underlying issues of low self-esteem and trust. Option A is incorrect because the delusion is not necessarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues. Option B is incorrect as there is no information provided that suggests the client's delusion is driven by anger about being hospitalized. Option D is incorrect as the delusion is about being poisoned, not a phobic fear of food.
5. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?
- A. Dementia
- B. Depression
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Chronic brain syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.
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