HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
- B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
- D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.
2. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Describes life as without purpose.
- B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
- C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
- D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
3. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?
- A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
- B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
- C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
- D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.
4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
- C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
- D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
- B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
- C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
- D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.
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