Nursing Elites

1. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
• B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
• D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.

2. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement during the initial interview for a client who is admitted to the mental health unit?

• A. Establish rapport in each phase of the nurse-client relationship.
• B. Determine the client's ability to communicate effectively.
• C. Reflect on previous psychiatric interviews the nurse has performed.
• D. Ensure data is collected and recorded in a systematic sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the most important action during the initial interview for a client admitted to the mental health unit. Building rapport helps create a trusting relationship between the nurse and the client, which is essential for effective communication and the success of the therapeutic relationship. Choice B, determining the client's ability to communicate effectively, is important but secondary to establishing rapport. Choice C, reflecting on previous psychiatric interviews, is not as critical during the initial interview with a new client. Choice D, ensuring data collection and recording in a systematic sequence, is important but comes after establishing rapport to foster a therapeutic environment.

3. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?

• A. Mood and affect.
• B. Suicidal ideation.
• C. Nutritional status.
• D. Fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.

4. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?

• A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
• B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
• C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
• D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.

5. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

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