Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Breast Tenderness
• D. Chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

2. When do mothers usually feel the first fetal movements during pregnancy?

• A. At 18-20 weeks
• B. During the first month
• C. Rarely
• D. Never

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mothers usually feel the first fetal movements, known as 'quickening,' around the 18th to 20th week of pregnancy. Feeling fetal movements during the first month is unlikely and uncommon. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Options C and D are also incorrect as mothers typically do feel fetal movements during pregnancy, just not during the first month.

3. A client at 37 weeks gestation presents to labor and delivery with contractions every two minutes. The nurse observes several shallow small vesicles on her pubis, labia, and perineum. The nurse should recognize the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition?

• A. Genital Warts
• B. Syphilis
• C. Herpes Simplex Virus
• D. German Measles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). HSV can present with small vesicles on the genital area, and it is a concern during labor due to the risk of transmission to the newborn. Genital warts (Choice A) are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and typically present as flesh-colored growths, not vesicles. Syphilis (Choice B) manifests as painless sores and can have systemic effects but does not typically present with vesicles. German measles (Choice D), also known as Rubella, is a viral illness characterized by a red rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy, not vesicles.

4. The _____ is the inner layer of the embryo from which the lungs and digestive system develop.

• A. neural tube
• B. mesoderm
• C. endoderm
• D. umbilical cord

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The endoderm is the correct answer. It is the innermost layer of the embryo that gives rise to organs such as the lungs, digestive system, liver, and pancreas. The neural tube (Choice A) forms the brain and spinal cord, not the lungs or digestive system. Mesoderm (Choice B) develops into structures like muscles, bones, and circulatory system, not the lungs or digestive system. The umbilical cord (Choice D) serves as a connection between the embryo and the placenta, providing nutrients and oxygen, but it is not the layer from which lungs and digestive system develop.

5. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

• A. an XYY male.
• B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
• C. an XXY male.
• D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

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