twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.

3. _____ are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teratogens are environmental agents, such as drugs, chemicals, or infections, that can cause harm to a developing embryo or fetus. Mutations (Choice A) refer to changes in the DNA sequence and are not environmental agents. Autosomes (Choice B) are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex and are not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus. Androgens (Choice D) are a group of hormones that are more related to male sexual development and function, not environmental agents that harm the embryo or fetus.

4. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.

5. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.

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