HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
- A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
- B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
- C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
- D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.
2. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?
- A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
- B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
- C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
- D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.
3. Do neural tube defects cause an elevation in the alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in the mother’s blood?
- A. Yes
- B. No
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yes, neural tube defects can cause an elevation in AFP levels in the mother’s blood. AFP levels are often used as a screening marker during pregnancy to detect neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because an elevation in AFP levels can indeed occur in the presence of neural tube defects. Choice C is not the best option as it leaves room for uncertainty when the relationship between neural tube defects and AFP elevation is well-established. Choice D is incorrect as neural tube defects are known to influence AFP levels in the maternal blood.
4. A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL
- C. A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L
- D. A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is critically low and can indicate severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, requiring immediate intervention.
5. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?
- A. Bleeding.
- B. Intense abdominal pain.
- C. Uterine activity.
- D. Cramping.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.
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