HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
- A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
- B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
- C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
- D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.
2. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?
- A. Retained placental fragments.
- B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
- C. Uterine atony.
- D. Puerperal infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.
3. In contrast to placenta previa, what is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae?
- A. Bleeding.
- B. Intense abdominal pain.
- C. Uterine activity.
- D. Cramping.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Intense abdominal pain. Pain is absent with placenta previa but can be agonizing with abruptio placentae. While bleeding may be present in varying degrees for both placental conditions, intense abdominal pain is a distinguishing feature of abruptio placentae. Uterine activity and cramping may be present with both placental conditions, but they are not the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae.
4. Twins that derive from a single zygote that has split into two are called:
- A. monozygotic (MZ) twins.
- B. fraternal twins.
- C. non-identical twins.
- D. dizygotic (DZ) twins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, occur when a single zygote splits into two embryos, leading to two genetically identical individuals. Choice B, fraternal twins, are twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, resulting in non-identical siblings. Choice C, non-identical twins, is not a common term used to describe this type of twinning. Choice D, dizygotic (DZ) twins, refer to twins that develop from two separate eggs fertilized by two different sperm cells, leading to non-identical twins.
5. Which of the following statements is true about Tay-Sachs disease?
- A. It is most commonly found among children in Jewish families of Eastern European background.
- B. Children who have this disease suffer from excessive production of mucus in the lungs and pancreas.
- C. It is most commonly found among children in Asian American families.
- D. Children who have this disease suffer from muscular dystrophy characterized by a weakening of the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Jewish families of Eastern European descent. It is a fatal genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. Choice B is incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not involve excessive mucus production in the lungs and pancreas. Choice C is incorrect as it states that Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Asian American families, which is inaccurate. Choice D is also incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not cause muscular dystrophy characterized by weakening of the muscles.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access