HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?
- A. 1 week.
- B. 2 weeks.
- C. 3 weeks.
- D. 4 weeks.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.
2. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.
3. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. The client expels the placenta
- B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
- C. The client begins having regular contractions
- D. The client delivers the newborn
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.
4. During the client’s initial prenatal visit, which of the following would indicate a need for further assessment?
- A. History of diabetes for 6 years.
- B. Exercises three times a week.
- C. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers.
- D. Maternal age 30 years.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A history of diabetes for 6 years indicates a pre-existing medical condition that can significantly impact both the mother and the developing fetus during pregnancy. This necessitates further assessment and monitoring to manage potential complications. Regular exercise (Choice B) is generally beneficial during pregnancy and does not raise immediate concerns. Occasional use of over-the-counter pain relievers (Choice C) is common and does not necessarily indicate a need for further assessment during the initial visit. Maternal age of 30 years (Choice D) falls within the normal range for childbearing and is not a standalone factor requiring immediate further assessment.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione (vitamin K) to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?
- A. Improve insufficient dietary intake
- B. Stimulate the immune system
- C. Help an immature liver
- D. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to their low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting. Choice A is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not related to improving dietary intake. Choice B is incorrect as vitamin K doesn't stimulate the immune system. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K is not given to help an immature liver, but rather to prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
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