HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client’s arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional implement to prevent infection?
- A. Thread the catheter up to the hub
- B. Use a sterile technique throughout the procedure
- C. Clean the insertion site with alcohol only
- D. Use gloves but not a mask during the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a sterile technique throughout the procedure is essential to prevent infection when inserting an IV catheter. This includes maintaining aseptic conditions, using sterile equipment, and following proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because threading the catheter up to the hub does not specifically address infection prevention. Choice C is incorrect as cleaning the insertion site with alcohol only may not provide adequate disinfection, as it is essential to use an antiseptic solution to reduce microbial load. Choice D is incorrect as wearing gloves alone is not sufficient protection against infection; a mask should also be worn to prevent the spread of microorganisms through respiratory secretions.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to hold the insulin and contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL
- B. Client reports feeling shaky
- C. Client ate only half of breakfast
- D. Client is sweating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A blood glucose of 100 mg/dL is relatively low for administering insulin, especially if the client has not eaten adequately; further assessment and contacting the provider are necessary. Hypoglycemia can be a serious concern when administering insulin, and a blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL indicates a risk of hypoglycemia. Holding the insulin and contacting the healthcare provider is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for holding insulin as they do not directly indicate a risk of hypoglycemic events.
3. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?
- A. Spinach
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.
4. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Mild nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Increased fatigue
- D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
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