a nurse is preparing to insert an iv catheter into a clients arm prior to initiating iv fluid therapy which of the following interventions should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client’s arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional implement to prevent infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a sterile technique throughout the procedure is essential to prevent infection when inserting an IV catheter. This includes maintaining aseptic conditions, using sterile equipment, and following proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because threading the catheter up to the hub does not specifically address infection prevention. Choice C is incorrect as cleaning the insertion site with alcohol only may not provide adequate disinfection, as it is essential to use an antiseptic solution to reduce microbial load. Choice D is incorrect as wearing gloves alone is not sufficient protection against infection; a mask should also be worn to prevent the spread of microorganisms through respiratory secretions.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the nurse take to maintain patency of the tube?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube, it is essential to flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure that the tube remains open and free from blockages. Flushing the tube prevents any medication residue from causing blockages, maintaining its patency. Choice B is incorrect because administering medication with food does not relate to maintaining tube patency. Choice C is incorrect as verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents is related to confirming correct tube placement, not maintaining patency. Choice D is also incorrect because diluting the medication with normal saline is not primarily aimed at maintaining the tube's patency.

3. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

4. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

5. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

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