Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

2. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

3. Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?

• A. Oil Retention
• B. Saline
• C. Soapy Water
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.

4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
• C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
• D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.

5. In a client with liver cirrhosis, which symptom would be most concerning during assessment?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Ascites
• C. Hepatomegaly
• D. Altered mental status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Altered mental status would be the most concerning symptom in a client with liver cirrhosis. It may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. While jaundice, ascites, and hepatomegaly are common in liver cirrhosis, they do not directly correlate with the urgency and severity of hepatic encephalopathy as altered mental status does. Therefore, altered mental status takes priority for immediate attention and intervention.

Similar Questions