Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
• B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
• C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
• D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.

2. When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should:

• A. Use the transfer belt if the client is unsteady
• B. Walk beside the client without support
• C. Encourage the client to use a walker
• D. Hold the client's arm for support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a transfer belt if the client is unsteady is essential to provide added safety and support during ambulation. This device helps the nurse assist the client in maintaining balance and prevents falls. Walking beside the client without support (choice B) may not offer enough assistance for a frail, older adult who is unsteady. Encouraging the client to use a walker (choice C) could be helpful in some cases, but if the client is unsteady during ambulation, additional support like a transfer belt is more appropriate. Holding the client's arm for support (choice D) may not provide enough stability and safety compared to using a transfer belt.

3. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

• A. Abnormal breath sounds
• B. Cyanosis of the lips
• C. Increasing pulse rate
• D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

4. A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein.
• B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
• C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice to promote absorption.
• D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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