Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?

• A. Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.
• B. Burn the ticks with a match or a small lighter.
• C. Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.
• D. Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.

2. What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?

• A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
• B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
• C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
• D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

• A. 0.75 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 0.8 mL
• D. 1.2 mL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

4. A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile water daily.
• B. Empty the catheter bag every 8 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

Similar Questions