Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

• A. Early decelerations
• B. Late decelerations
• C. Accelerations
• D. Moderate variability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

2. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

• A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
• B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
• C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
• D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report about a client he admitted earlier that day who has pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the nurse to provide?

• A. Breath sounds
• B. Client’s history of smoking
• C. Current medication list
• D. Client’s family history of respiratory illness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, assessing breath sounds is crucial as it provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Changes in breath sounds could indicate complications like fluid accumulation or worsening pneumonia. While the client's history of smoking (Choice B), current medication list (Choice C), and family history of respiratory illness (Choice D) are important factors to consider, they are not as urgent or directly related to the client's immediate condition as assessing breath sounds.

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